a good question, i think they weren't though. However, since the Jews of Europe were most likely comprised of several ethnicities, none of which were targeted for total annihilation during the nazi era, does that mean the Jews did not experience genocide? In this case, we would say, yes, because the perpatrators perceived the Jews to be one common 'ethnicity' or race, and set out to annihilate that group as they defined them. In this case, reality is not determining whether or not it was genocide, but the perception of the perpatrator.

which begs the question in the native american case. Should we go by how the whites perceived the natives, or by what they really were.

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