Do you deny the actuality of the phenomena known as the "tragedy of the commons"???

I understand one may have theoretical issues with some of the arguments referenced in the OP (economic 'rational-maximal man'), but do you deny the phenomena itself?

I don't think there is sufficient evidence to say that human society is inherently cooperative any more than one can say it is inherently competitive. It is a combination of both. Just the same way that human nature is a combination of rationalism and irrationalism.