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  #136 (permalink)  
Old 10-08-2009
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Re: Why Germans were not punished after WW2?

Quote:
Originally Posted by ThorHammer View Post
Cool. I figured those were what you were talking about. I simply wanted to make sure everyone was talking about the same thing.

However, I believe you are making a very common mistake in your interpretation of those referendums.

1. 12 November 1933. This referendum wasn't so much a "Do you like Hitler vote" It was a vote asking the German people if they supported Hitler's move in removing Germany from the League of Nations and (more importantly, IMO) the Disarmament Conference. Since most German parties supported this prior to the Nazis coming to power, it result isn't at all surprising.

2. 19 August 1934. This was a referendum that, to be honest, had a great deal of historical precidence within Germany (and Prussia) prior to WW1 and the Weimar Republic. The office of Chancellor and President were one in the same prior to the Weimar Republic. So, after Hindenburg died, Hitler re-established that precident. This vote was as to whether the German people supported that move. Given that historical precident, it is no real surprise that they supported it. It should be noted that it really didn't matter what they thought as Hitler had already carried out the merger prior to the vote.

3. 29 March 1936. This referendum concerned the re-occupation of the Rhineland by Germany and was not a "I like Hilter" vote. This restriction placed on Germany by the Allied powers at the end of WW1 was considered an insult to many Germans and the return of German sovereignty over the region was an idea supported by pretty much every political party prior to Nazi rule. Again, it should come as no surprise the German people supported this move. Hell, I would have voted for it too.

4. 10 April 1938. This referendum related to the ratification by the German people of the Anschluss with Austria. Again, their support of this shouldn't be taken as an "I like Hitler" vote. Just after WW1 there was a very real desire by the peoples of Germany and Austria to join together into a single state. This was on the road to completion until the Allied powers intervened and forbid such a merger. Once again, it should come as no surprise that the German people supported the move under Hitler just as they did prior to him taking power.
All that you say is true. Nonetheless, it was the public's only chances to vote any displeasure with Hitler. At least you're not falling into the trap that the Germans had no choice but vote "Ja".

It has been supposed that referendums are a sign of a weak government (all fascist states seem to use them), I would suppose the opposite, it's a sign of a weak, sheepish populace.
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  #137 (permalink)  
Old 10-08-2009
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Burgermeister Meisterburger

 
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Minnesota     Germany

Re: Why Germans were not punished after WW2?

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Originally Posted by EagleTed View Post
All that you say is true. Nonetheless, it was the public's only chances to vote any displeasure with Hitler. At least you're not falling into the trap that the Germans had no choice but vote "Ja".

It has been supposed that referendums are a sign of a weak government (all fascist states seem to use them), I would suppose the opposite, it's a sign of a weak, sheepish populace.
But my point was that they can't be viewed as "Ja fur Hitler" votes since that wasn't what the people were being asked to vote on. No, not by a long shot. Hitler was just being clever as to how he approached the people.
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  #138 (permalink)  
Old 10-15-2009
Concerned Citizen

 
Member Since: Sep 2005
Location: Germany, Cologne
Posts: 49

Germany     European_Union

Re: Why Germans were not punished after WW2?

1.
Quote:
Originally Posted by MilleVanille View Post
Yesterday I was reading the blog of archaeological team, searching and digging out burial places of people murdered by Germans.
They recently discovered again a grave with bones of young girls and German condoms...
I'm rather confused about this notice. Does that mean that the Germans raped the the young girls using condoms and killed them thereafter?

2.
Hitlers regime was a satanic mixture of success and terror which was very irresistible.
- He succeeded in tasks no-one ever had considered possible. There were people who believed in him like in a god. I know that after the war when Hitler was already dead people said that Hitler will come and help them. It were probably not so very many people, but it was not an exeption.
- At that time everyone knew that there sometimes people vanished - fetched by Gestapo. And everyone knew that there was no law which was above all, as Hitler was above all. There was nothin you could really trust. They even interrogated the children to report about the political attitude of their families, you know. Things like that are very insecuring. People perhaps stuck to saying yes to Hitler for simple safeness.

3. My father was in Russia during that war, not as a soldier but as an engineer, so he himself did not shoot people. He has told a little bit about that time and it is really a very very sad and horrible story.
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  #139 (permalink)  
Old 10-16-2009
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Re: Why Germans were not punished after WW2?

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Originally Posted by MilleVanille View Post
Why Germans were not punished after WW2? ...
Very easy: the world loves us - specially Russians are doing so.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QYtIcg6-Rgw
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Last edited by anobsitar; 10-16-2009 at 04:47 AM.
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  #140 (permalink)  
Old 10-16-2009
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Re: Why Germans were not punished after WW2?

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Originally Posted by anobsitar View Post
Very easy: the world loves us - specially Russians are doing so.
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