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Correct, however, the key distinction is that of provisions for political rights for Jews, not provided to non-Jews.
Palestine Mandate, Art. 2...
The Mandatory shall be responsible for placing the country under such *political*, administrative and economic conditions as will secure the establishment of the Jewish national home, as laid down in the preamble, and the development of self-governing institutions, and also for safeguarding the *civil and religious rights* of all the inhabitants of Palestine, irrespective of race and religion.
It explicitly avoids naming a Jewish state, opting instead for the legally irrelevant word "homeland." Why is this so difficult?
First they came for the mimes, and I did not speak out, because I was a mime.



"Jewish National Home" was the nomenclature of the time signifying a Jewish state.
"Home" was the term used by the First Zionist Congress, as reflected in the Basle Programme...
Zionism seeks to establish a home for the Jewish people in Palestine secured under public law.



The intent of the Palestine Mandate was the eventuality of a Jewish state as testified by key figures Lord Balfour, Prime Minister Lloyd George, Winston Churchill and Woodrow Wilson.
All of Palestine, including Gaza and Jordan, were earmarked in the original Palestine Mandate. The Palestine Mandate does not distinguish either.



History records the remarks of Lord Balfour, Prime Minister Lloyd George, Winston Churchill and Woodrow Wilson intending a Jewish homeland in Palestine to eventuate into a Jewish state. Indeed, the Palestine Mandate makes absolutely no mention of Arabs, nor, were Arabs even consulted by the League of Nations, reflecting the recognized ancestral connection between Palestine and Jews.
Even assuming you're right (:rolleyesSo fucking what? It's not Balfour and Churchill's land to divy up.
First they came for the mimes, and I did not speak out, because I was a mime.






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