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  #16 (permalink)  
Old 06-09-2008
Mick Jagger's Avatar
Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Judges should strive to apply laws based on what the language of the law in question would have been generally and reasonably understood to mean at the time it was passed.
That sounds to me like a clever pretext for a Judge to substitute his personal views for the will of the lawmakers at the time the Constitution was made.

It would seem to me that the fundamental object of Constitutional interpretation should be to ascertain the will of the lawmakers at the time they made the U. S. Constitution. That was the object of legal interpretation, according to the common law "rules of construction", at the time the Constitution was made.

What rules and principles keep a judge's bias from influencing his ascertainment of the general and reasonable understanding of the Constitution at the time it was made?

What are the most natural and probable signs of the general and reasonable understanding?
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old 06-09-2008
John Drake John Drake is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Living through the Courts: Judges are meant to be the arbiters of a Constitution with no fixed meaning, but is left to them to decide what it means each day based on whatever notions they hold regarding the "evolving standards of decency that mark the progress of a maturing society¨
This is what it's going to work out to in practice anyway, due to the semantic criticisms of the other philosophies which other posts here so far have just touched on.

In the end, we have courts to determine questions of fact but also to interpret the law. They HAVE to interpret it, in order to enforce it, and that process, like it or not, usually boils down to the above.

This is why judges are so important.
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Mick Jagger
What's the rest of rule? Do we accept or reject the more sensible meaning?

What rules do we use to determine which meaning of a word is more sensible than another? What if there are two or more meanings that are equally sensible?
Try reading the entire post. I listed several other general rules for interpreting legal texts which answer this question.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
How would one go about ascertaining the general and reasonable understanding of the original unamended U. S. Constitution's non delegation of authority over religion to the government thereby established?
Again, try reading my entire post, which part of the following is not clear to you:

Quote:
2. By the actions promulgated by those who passed the law. For example, if the question is whether a particular law drafted 200 years ago permits X and the text is vague or ambiguous; but, we see that immediately following passage of that law, the congress did the very thing we are questioning the permisability of, that is clear evidence in support of that interpretation under the canons. For example, does the First Amendment prohibit spending ANY Federal funding that in any way, shape, or form promotes or supports religion. Well, the fact that the post of Congressional Chaplain was not viewed as proscribed by the First Amendment belies any such absolutist and draconian understanding of it.

3. The "long standing traditions and customs society". If something has been done in an unbroken chain before, and since the passage of an ambiguous text, it should not be construed as proscribed by that text. For example, it is not reasonable to conclude that equal protection language which has been in place for over a century proscribes the failure to recognize gay marriage. It is clear from over 100 years of history that it was not understood to mean any such thing by those who wrote or ratified it.
Quote:
Mick Jagger
Quote:
Judges should strive to apply laws based on what the language of the law in question would have been generally and reasonably understood to mean at the time it was passed.


That sounds to me like a clever pretext for a Judge to substitute his personal views for the will of the lawmakers at the time the Constitution was made.

No, it is exactly the opposite. It constrains the judge, whereas a "living" constitution is license for judges to substitute their personal views for the clear text and generally undeniable general understanding of the constitution at the time of its ratification.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
It would seem to me that the fundamental object of Constitutional interpretation should be to ascertain the will of the lawmakers at the time they made the U. S. Constitution. That was the object of legal interpretation, according to the common law "rules of construction", at the time the Constitution was made.
Actually it was not, common law rules have always been to give words their generally understood meaning unless it meets certain exceptions under the canons (i.e. if a law is dealing with a highly technical area and a more technical meaning of the word thus makes more sense in the context of the law than the general meaning of the word.

We are not governed by the will of the legislatures, we are goverened by the law as passed. The law is nothing but words, and the common law tradition is that they be interpreted based on their general meaning.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
What rules and principles keep a judge's bias from influencing his ascertainment of the general and reasonable understanding of the Constitution at the time it was made?
Again, go back and read my post.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
What are the most natural and probable signs of the general and reasonable understanding?
Go back and read my post

Quote:
John Drake
This is what it's going to work out to in practice anyway, due to the semantic criticisms of the other philosophies which other posts here so far have just touched on.

In the end, we have courts to determine questions of fact but also to interpret the law. They HAVE to interpret it, in order to enforce it, and that process, like it or not, usually boils down to the above.

This is why judges are so important.
Well DUH, of course they have to interpret it, but the question is HOW are they supposed to interpret it? They are not empowered to MAKE the law, they are bound by the law as written, the question then becomes, what is an intellecutally legitimate method for determing WHAT the law is.

Let me ask you this, what, if any Supreme Court opinions do you disagree with, and on what basis?
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  #19 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Mick Jagger's Avatar
Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post
Try reading the entire post.
I did. What's the rest of the rule regarding "one meaning more sensible?" What do we do with the meaning that we decide is most sensible.

Quote:
I listed several other general rules for interpreting legal texts which answer this question.
Are you saying that if there are two or more equally sensible meanings, we just move on the next rule without determining which meaning is the most reasonable?
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  #20 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Mick Jagger's Avatar
Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Mick Jagger
How would one go about ascertaining the general and reasonable understanding of the original unamended U. S. Constitution's non delegation of authority over religion to the government thereby established?

Again, try reading my entire post, which part of the following is not clear to you:

2. By the actions promulgated by those who passed the law.
Are you saying that "actions promulgated" trump the actual words of the Constitution.

Quote:
For example, if the question is whether a particular law drafted 200 years ago permits X and the text is vague or ambiguous
What if any ambiguity of the language in the Constitution has be resolved (using the traditional common law "rules of construction") and the resulting interpretation is in conflict with the "actions promulgated" after the Constitution was adopted? Which prevails, the "interpretation" based on the actual words of the Constitution and the common law 'rules of construction', or "actions" by the lawmakers after the fact?

Quote:
but, we see that immediately following passage of that law, the congress did the very thing we are questioning the permisability of, that is clear evidence in support of that interpretation under the canons. For example, does the First Amendment prohibit spending ANY Federal funding that in any way, shape, or form promotes or supports religion. Well, the fact that the post of Congressional Chaplain was not viewed as proscribed by the First Amendment belies any such absolutist and draconian understanding of it.
Assuming that your rules should be used, that argument fails, because the Congressional Chaplainships weren't established by those who gave legal effect to the First Amendment. The First Congress merely framed the First Amendment. The several state legislatures were the bodies that actually made it the law of the land.

Last edited by Mick Jagger; 06-10-2008 at 11:06 AM.
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  #21 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Mick Jagger
I did. What's the rest of the rule regarding "one meaning more sensible?" What do we do with the meaning that we decide is most sensible.
Well, you would have to give a specific example, if you can't grasp the general concept of common sense.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
Are you saying that if there are two or more equally sensible meanings, we just move on the next rule without determining which meaning is the most reasonable?
Maybe you should look up the meaning of the word "equally". By definition of you have two EQUALLY sensible meanings NEITHER OF THEM is the "most" reasonable. Hence, you rely on the multitude of other canons.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
Are you saying that "actions promulgated" trump the actual words of the Constitution.
No, I am saying that actions promulgated as indications of what the words were generally understood to mean would trump a modern judges interpretation of what they meant if that is contradicted by the actions of those who by virtue of having wrote and ratified them were much more in touch with the original understanding than a judge today.

Basically I am saying if something was never considered to be unconstitutional when the constitution was ratified, nor by anyone since that time based on the long standing and uninterrupted traditions and customs of our society, than on its face a modern interpretation that renders that history as being in violation of the constitution is not a reasonable interpretation of the words.

Go back to my example. Given the fact that the position of Congressional Chaplain (paid for by U.S. taxpayer funds) was not understood by anyone to be proscribed by the First Amendment (as evidence by the continued existence of that position to the present day) it would not be a reasonable interpretation of the words to decide they actually DO proscribe that which has been done for all this time.

Scalia told a wonderful story from his highschool days in which the class was studying Shakespeare and some smart-ass classmate made a piffy comment critical of one of the plays; to which the teach responded "Mr. so-and-so, when you read Shakespeare, it is not Shakespeare who is on trail...you are". In other words, when an interpretation of the text results in a conflict with the long-standing accepted traditions and customs of our society, it is the interpretation at fault, and not the long-standing traditions and customs.

That is the difference between judges faithfully interpreting and applying the law and making the law.

Quote:
Mick Jagger
What if any ambiguity of the language in the Constitution has be resolved (using the traditional common law "rules of construction") and the resulting interpretation is in conflict with the "actions promulgated" post adoption? Which prevails, the "interpretation" based on the actual words of the Constitution and the common law rules of construction, or "actions " after the fact?
They are one and the same, the reliance on actions promulgated by contemporary lawmakers as evidence of the original understanding is PART of the common law Canons you refer to.

You really aren't grasping this. Nobody is denying that the WORDS of the constitution are despositive, the question is how does one go about determining what those words were generally understood to mean when they were given force of law.

Let's take the Establishment Clause, for example:

Quote:
Amendment I
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion...
What exactly did those words mean when they were ratified?

Quote:
Mick Jagger
That argument fails, because the Congressional Chaplainships weren't established by those who gave legal effect to the First Amendment. The First Congress merely framed the First Amendment. The several state legislatures were the bodies that made it the law of the land. It would seem to me that you need to show that, after ratifying the First Amendment, a majority of the state legislatures established legislative chaplainships to be supported by the people.
Not under the canons of construction. Now, if you could show widespread OPPOSITION and, oh, say COURT challenges to such institutions at the time suqsequent to the ratification of the First Amendment, then you may have an case to make that it was not a generally acceptable practice under the First Amendment.

Let's try a different, clearer example. The Death Penalty. How can something that is expressly and affirmatively anticipated by the constitution have become unconstitutional absent any amendment abolishing it?
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  #22 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Mick Jagger's Avatar
Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Respondent
Judges should strive to apply laws based on what the language of the law in question would have been generally and reasonably understood to mean at the time it was passed.

Mick Jagger
That sounds to me like a clever pretext for a Judge to substitute his personal views for the will of the lawmakers at the time the Constitution was made.

Respondent
No, it is exactly the opposite. It constrains the judge,
It appears to me that it liberates the judge from the will of the lawmakers at the time they made the Constitution.

Quote:
whereas a "living" constitution is license for judges to substitute their personal views for the clear text and generally undeniable general understanding of the constitution at the time of its ratification.
If the Constitution wasn't a living breathing document, we would have to dismantle the U. S. Air Force.

Seriously however, both the "living Constitution" theory and your theory allow the judge to deviate from "the will of the lawmakers at time they made the law", which was the standard of legal interpretation at the time the Constitution was made.
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  #23 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Mick Jagger
It appears to be that it liberates the judge from the will of the lawmakers at the time they made the Constitution and allows him to go in search of something a Judge isn't even qualified to do. Namely, to determine what meaning a word was understood to have had by those who gave it effect.
Nonesense, the canons of construction ARE the method by which Judges are TRAINED and supposed to do so.

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Mick Jagger
If the Constitution wasn't a living breathing document, we would have to dismantle the U. S. Air Force.
Nonesense, the "U.S. Air Force" is a semantic distinction, it is an internal organizational distinction which has no substantive constitutional distinction from the army or navy. Now, one could argue that based on the distinction made between the army and the navy in the Constitution that it would constitutionally represent something that is more akin to the Navy.

That said, you touch on a fundamental distinction that has NOTHING to do with most constitutional interpretation. The law has always recognized the eventuality of existing law having to be applied to what would have been utterly unforseable situations and facts when it was written (this is almost exclusively the result of technological advancement). That is FAR different from saying that the law CHANGES vis-a-vis not only foreseable, but explicitly addressed contemporary issues.

Take freedom of speech and press. The internet not only didn't exist at the time of the ratification of the First Amendment, but was utterly unforeseable. Does that mean the basic principles outlined by those two clauses (protection of the spoken and written word--"press" did not refer to the news media as we use it today, but to the printing "press" which was the ONLY method for widespread dissemination of ideas at the time) have "changed" or have they simply been applied to new and unforseable situations?

I think if you would find that the canons of construction are much easier applied in practice than in the abstract. You can imagine all sort of factless "whatifs", but I would submit that once you start fitting specific facts into the mix, most of your abstract questions and concerns would be pushed aside rather readily.

Take the Death Penalty. Is it, or is it not permitted by the Constitution?
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  #24 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
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Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Marcus:

With your permission, let’s revisit the issue of the overall objective of Constitutional interpretation.

First, I understood you to say that the primary object should be to determine what “would have been generally and reasonably understood to have been the meaning of the words in the Constitution, when it was passed.

Later, you seemed to modify the primary objective to be “the reasonable and general understanding of that law by those who gave it effect at the time it was so done.”

Would I be correct to understand that you believe the fundamental goal of interpreting the Original [unamended] Constitution and the Bill of Rights should be to ascertain the reasonable and general understanding of those instruments/document by those who gave it effect, at the time there were given legal effect/ratified?
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  #25 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Mick Jagger
Marcus:

With your permission, let’s revisit the issue of the overall objective of Constitutional interpretation.

First, I understood you to say that the primary object should be to determine what “would have been generally and reasonably understood to have been the meaning of the words in the Constitution, when it was passed.

Later, you seemed to modify the primary objective to be “the reasonable and general understanding of that law by those who gave it effect at the time it was so done.”

Would I be correct to understand that you believe the fundamental goal of interpreting the Original [unamended] Constitution and the Bill of Rights should be to ascertain the reasonable and general understanding of those instruments/document by those who gave it effect, at the time there were given legal effect/ratified?
Sorry if the phraseology made it appear as though I were modifying what I originally said, I discuss this frequently enough that at times certain things I take as going without saying.

I would say that would say that the text of a law should be given the meaning the general had at the time they were given effect. The Canons of Construction are merely ancient "rules" for going about determining that where there is any question.

No, that is not to say that this goal is never a difficult one, but anything short of this goal is the very license you would otherwise decry Judges being given to invent rather than interpet the law.

It is not the original "intent" of the law (either of the lawmakers who wrote, or the people who ratified), but rather than generally understood meaning of the words themselves which is the object. We are a nation of laws, not a nation of intentions.

You seem to dismiss this as being somehow impossible, but it is not. Once you move away from the abstraction (which has no relevance in the discussion of the work of Judges, which deals with facts and not abstracts) and deal with factual situations, I think you will find that the canons work rather effectively in constraining judges who make an honest intellectual effort to adhere to them.

Now, that doesn't mean that intellectually dishonest judges will not try to contort the law to their will, merely that it is harder for them to do so readily. As Scalia says:

Quote:
"Constitutional Interpretation"
Remarks by Justice Antonin Scalia at The Woodrow Wilson International Center for Scholars in Washington, D.C, March 14, 2005.
...Now, in asserting that originalism used to be orthodoxy, I do not mean to imply that judges did not distort the Constitution now and then, of course they did. We had willful judges then, and we will have willful judges until the end of time. But the difference is that prior to the last 50 years or so, prior to the advent of the “Living Constitution,” judges did their distortions the good old fashioned way, the honest way — they lied about it. They said the Constitution means such and such, when it never meant such and such.

It’s a big difference that you now no longer have to lie about it, because we are in the era of the evolving Constitution. And the judge can simply say, “Oh yes, the Constitution didn’t used to mean that, but it does now.” We are in the age in which not only judges, not only lawyers, but even school children have come to learn the Constitution changes. I have grammar school students come into the Court now and then, and they recite very proudly what they have been taught: “The Constitution is a living document.” You know, it morphs...
I would suggest you read that entire address as well as the following:
NINOVILLE - an Antonin Scalia reference site
NINOVILLE - an Antonin Scalia reference site
NINOVILLE - an Antonin Scalia reference site
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  #26 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
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Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post
I would say that the text of a law should be given the meaning the general had at the time they were given effect.
Which "general" are you referring to, why should he be the authority and how do we figure out what meaning he gave to the text?

Last edited by Mick Jagger; 06-10-2008 at 01:00 PM.
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  #27 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Mick Jagger
Which "general" are you referring to, why should he be the authority and how do we figure out what meaning he gave to the text?
typo didn't mean to include the second "the" in the underlined portion. If you couldn't figure that out (in the canons of construction it would be referred to at Scrivener's error) then we can certainly cross your name off of any long-lists for judicial appointments *grin*
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  #28 (permalink)  
Old 06-10-2008
Mick Jagger's Avatar
Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post
typo didn't mean to include the second "the" in the underlined portion. If you couldn't figure that out (in the canons of construction it would be referred to at Scrivener's error) then we can certainly cross your name off of any long-lists for judicial appointments *grin*
Now, I have absolutely no idea what you believe the object of Constitutional interpretation should be.
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Old 06-10-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

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Mick Jagger
Now, I have absolutely no idea what you believe the object of Constitutional interpretation should be.
I would say that the text of a law should be given the general meaning it had at the time it was given effect.

There, fully caffinated articulation (after my afternoon coffee)
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Old 06-10-2008
John Drake John Drake is offline
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Re: What is your view on appropirate Judicial Philosphy?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post




Well DUH, of course they have to interpret it, but the question is HOW are they supposed to interpret it? They are not empowered to MAKE the law, they are bound by the law as written, the question then becomes, what is an intellecutally legitimate method for determing WHAT the law is.

Let me ask you this, what, if any Supreme Court opinions do you disagree with, and on what basis?
Too many to go into, but a good example is this recent one extending Eminent Domain to private parties. It illustrates what I'm saying. Constitutional or not (although I don't believe it is) it's NOT in keeping with modern concepts of what's the decent thing to do.

What's an intellectually legitimate method for determining the law indeed, and are you following it? and no you aren't or yes you are, and blah, blah, blah ad nauseam. Like was wisely said a few posts back, they did it this way anyhoo but just lied about it. I don't agree with lying in this case, though. It's the tangled web thing, eventually you forget what was the lie and just go along as if it's truth.

I'm not saying you should ignore the Constitution by any means . I'm saying that the Constitution is meant to be a broad framework, and it exists within an even broader framework of the general and enlightened ethos of the time. (and what's that? which is why we need good judges)

The FF were great men, but people back then also used to spend Sunday afternoons either watching tortured animals tear each other apart or poking sticks at the inmates in the local asylum, and that was perfectly alright to everyone. Times. Change.

Last edited by John Drake; 06-10-2008 at 06:18 PM.
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