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  #46 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008
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Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by mtramm View Post
I just looked up "in god we trust" on google, and searched through the various links. I believe the page I found with links to transcripts is actually linked at the bottom of the Wikipedia page.
Thanks
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I find it appalling that Justice Antonin Scala, in his dissenting opinion in McCreary County v. ACLU, constructed his model of "the relationship between church and state" in America without even considering the actual text of the Constitution. How do incompetents like him get on the U. S. Supreme Court?
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  #47 (permalink)  
Old 06-17-2008
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mtramm mtramm is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by Mick Jagger View Post
I'm not up to date on interpretive methodologies used by the current Justices on the Supreme Court.
A lot of it is just the same old formula of reading the plain language of the law, and then if it is not clear what the plain language means the Court usually looks to the intent of the legislature. This is the step where it gets tough and also where the various Justices usually disagree. Usually though they are asked to split hairs, for example, like where they ask whether a specific instance of police activity violates the right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures, or for example, whether a specific abortion procedure violates the right to privacy.

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Originally Posted by Mick Jagger View Post
I'm well informed on the methods used by the Justices in cases having to do with separation of church and state. In my humble view, all of them make the mistake of trying to gather the meaning of the Constitution, as pertains to the relationship of government to religion, from an analysis of historical events.
Being a hard core atheist since I was 14, I wish I knew more about these cases. I just picked up "God on Trial" and I intend to read it ASAP. My real interest is in Criminal Procedure, and First Amendment jurisprudence (specifically freedom of speech, assembly and press). Generally the Court looks to legislative history to discern what the founders meant by the words they used in the Constitution itself, but after you go back far enough, historical context of when the Constitution was written can be very helpful in determining what the rights guaranteed by the Constitution actually were.

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Originally Posted by Mick Jagger View Post
Cite me a few of his opinions related to the Fourth Amendment. I would like to read them.
Arizona v. Hicks, 480 U.S. 321 (1987); Florida v. J.L., 529 U.S. 266 (2000); Kyllo v. U.S., 533 U.S. 27 (2001); Just to name a few...


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Originally Posted by Mick Jagger View Post
Interesting....Whats the style of that case?
The case is called Rapanos v. U.S.. It's a case to try to determine what "waters of the United States" found in the text of the Constitution means. In this case there were Administrative bodies, namely the EPA, and the Army Corps of Engineers included within that definition wetlands that may only become "wet" once every 10 years or so. Because of this definition, developers lost money on investments because they were prevented from building on wetlands that hadn't been flooded in many years.

I don't know what the style is, but this case has a lot to do with agencies, and what weight to give their determinations, and their definitions. In this case Scalia used a 1940's dictionary (just as the founders intended) to define "wetlands." Generally the Courts yield to agency definitions of terms, because they are commonly regarded as being experts at what they do, not the courts (they're law experts). Anyway, this decision created a huge uproar, but I'm not sure I can answer your question.
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  #48 (permalink)  
Old 06-25-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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mtramm
A lot of it is just the same old formula of reading the plain language of the law, and then if it is not clear what the plain language means the Court usually looks to the intent of the legislature. This is the step where it gets tough and also where the various Justices usually disagree. Usually though they are asked to split hairs, for example, like where they ask whether a specific instance of police activity violates the right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures, or for example, whether a specific abortion procedure violates the right to privacy.
I think you will find that not all judges believe that the starting point in interpretation is the plain meanign fo the text itself (although they should). Furthermore, even once there is agreement on the existence of ambiguity, there is far from consensus that the "intent" of the legislature is what is controlling.

It is important to understand that until rather recently, original "intent" was not understood as referring to whatever the underlying reasons for passing a particular law legislatures may have had, but it was a way of expressing the plain meaning rule. It was simply assumed that the "intent" of the legislature was that which was expressed in the text of the statute.

Where ambiguity existed, there were (and are) a series of cannons of construction that guide (and constrain to some extent) judges in their effort to determine what the text was generally understood to mean (most of these upon examination I think you would find are utterly common sensical--hence their value in determing the general understanding of the text).

But even once you get past the distinction between modern notions of original "intent" vs. "understanding", there are judges who reject both of those (although some of them disguise their rejection by articulating the search for the original "intent" as being a means to supercede even clear and unambiguous text in the law) and instead believe that the meaning of the law is fluid and changes.

Quote:
mtramm
The case is called Rapanos v. U.S.. It's a case to try to determine what "waters of the United States" found in the text of the Constitution means. In this case there were Administrative bodies, namely the EPA, and the Army Corps of Engineers included within that definition wetlands that may only become "wet" once every 10 years or so. Because of this definition, developers lost money on investments because they were prevented from building on wetlands that hadn't been flooded in many years.

I don't know what the style is, but this case has a lot to do with agencies, and what weight to give their determinations, and their definitions. In this case Scalia used a 1940's dictionary (just as the founders intended) to define "wetlands." Generally the Courts yield to agency definitions of terms, because they are commonly regarded as being experts at what they do, not the courts (they're law experts). Anyway, this decision created a huge uproar, but I'm not sure I can answer your question.
First of all, it is not the case that courts generally yield to administrative agencies defintions, rather it is their custom to yield to any REASONABLE definition of terms by an administrative authority. It has never been absolute, and the standard has always been one of reasonableness.

In the case at hand, the Amry Corp of Engineers had given such an expansive meaning to various terms in the statute, as to become unreasonable under the statute itself.

The relevant portion of the statute covered "navigable waters", but specifically defined that term as "the waters of the United States". While the majority in the case dismissed the traditional definition as limited to merely navigable interstate waters (based on other parts of the statute which made it clear that such a limited reading was not reasonable), it was nonetheless unreasonable to give it the expansive definition the Corps had given it.

The dictionary reference was shown to demonstrate that there is a difference in meaning between water and "waters" (or "the waters"), and that the plain meaning of "waters" only included relatively permanent bodies of water.

Furthermore, the agency definition, relevant for this case, included in its definition of "the waters" things such as channels and conduits, which the statute itself categorizes seperately and distinctly from "navigable waters" by including them explicitly in the definition of "point source(s)". Based in part on both the plain meaning of the term "waters" and the fact that the Corps had included in its definition of "navigable waters" items specifically excluded from that defintion and instead included under the definition of a distinct term, the majority held that the Corps interpretation was not within the reasonable scope of traditional deferrence.

Furthermore, the definition was further stretched beyond the plain language of the statute because it relied upon a misapplication of a prior court precedent (rather than the text of the statute). In previous cases, the court, recognizing that it is a judgement call where "navigable waters" (as defined by the statute) ended and "wetlands" (which were not included as navigable waters under the statute) began. So the court appropriately deferred to the agency in making such a judgement. The court did not rule that wetlands themselves were navigable waters, merely that in assessing where the boundary between an "abutting" (meaning in actual physical contact) wetlands and navigable waters was to be left to their discretion.

What the Corps did in Rapanos was to interpret that broad discretion in determine where navigable waters ended and the wetlands began to mean that wetlands themselves were included under the statutory definition of navigable waters. Based on this stretch of the courts deference within a gray area, they basically redefined the gray as white, and what was previosly black as gray.

This again was struck down by the court, pointing out that the defference given previously represented the full extent of reasonable discretion in the agencies definition, not a fresh starting point.
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  #49 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by mtramm View Post
The case is called Rapanos v. U.S.. It's a case to try to determine what "waters of the United States" found in the text of the Constitution means.
I couldn't find the phrase, "waters of the United States", in the Constitution.
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I find it appalling that Justice Antonin Scala, in his dissenting opinion in McCreary County v. ACLU, constructed his model of "the relationship between church and state" in America without even considering the actual text of the Constitution. How do incompetents like him get on the U. S. Supreme Court?
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  #50 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by Mick Jagger View Post
I couldn't find the phrase, "waters of the United States", in the Constitution.
Yeah, sorry, it was the term "navigable waters," the Court was trying to find out the meaning of... I was recapping that case from memory 2+ years old.
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  #51 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Yeah, sorry, it was the term "navigable waters," the Court was trying to find out the meaning of... I was recapping that case from memory 2+ years old.
I don't see "navigable waters" in the Constitution either. Was it in a statute?
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I find it appalling that Justice Antonin Scala, in his dissenting opinion in McCreary County v. ACLU, constructed his model of "the relationship between church and state" in America without even considering the actual text of the Constitution. How do incompetents like him get on the U. S. Supreme Court?
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  #52 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by mtramm View Post
I think Justice Marshall said it best in Marbury v. Madison:

"It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department [the judicial branch] to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule to particular cases, must of necessity expound and interpret that rule. If two laws conflict with each other, the courts must decide on the operation of each. So if a law [e.g., a statute or treaty] be in opposition to the constitution: if both the law and the constitution apply to a particular case, so that the court must either decide that case conformably to the law, disregarding the constitution; or conformably to the constitution, disregarding the law: the court must determine which of these conflicting rules governs the case. This is of the very essence of judicial duty.
If then the courts are to regard the constitution; and the constitution is superior to any ordinary act of the legislature; the constitution, and not such ordinary act, must govern the case to which they both apply.
Those then who controvert the principle that the constitution is to be considered, in court, as a paramount law, are reduced to the necessity of maintaining that courts must close their eyes on the constitution, and see only the law [e.g., the statute or treaty]. This doctrine would subvert the very foundation of all written constitutions."

Marbury v. Madison, 5 U.S. 137, 177-78 (1803).

It appears to me that you're arguing the position Marshall addresses in the second bold face part of the quote.
That's what I meant. It's not in the Constitution itself but is an interpretation of it, just like the separation of Church and State being a wall.
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  #53 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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John Drake
That's what I meant. It's not in the Constitution itself but is an interpretation of it, just like the separation of Church and State being a wall.
Actually, the text referred to originally by mtramm in reference to the Rapanos case is in the CWA statute, not the Constitution.
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  #54 (permalink)  
Old 06-26-2008
sneddog sneddog is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by Eagle88 View Post
The exact language of the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution with regard to religion is this:

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof;"

There are two basic parts to this. One, Congress cannot make any law that "respects" an establishment of religion. Two, Congress cannot make any law that prohibits the free exercise of religion. It is absolutely true that a person has the right to choose what faith they will be a member of or to choose no faith at all and it is absolutely true that Congress cannot establish a national church, but I think that many aspects of the first amendment are misconstrued by people today. A lot of people seem to believe that the first amendment prohibits government from having anything whatever to do with anything religious and interpret that government can't even mention the name of God or something like that. These people seem to think that the "wall of separation of church and state" (a phrase not actually found in the U.S. Constitution but comes from a letter from Thomas Jefferson to the Dunbury Baptists) is a 50 ft. reinforced wall with barbed wire and a huge chasm separating two enemies rather than a chain link fence that separates two friendly neighbors.

What the first amendment does is prohibit government from stopping people from worshiping and prevents government from playing favorites with particular religions. It does not mean that government cannot give support and reverence to religion in general. The word "respecting" is used in the same way as it is in the phrase "God is no respecter of persons". It means simply to not play favorites. An "establishment of religion" just simply means an established religion (Ex. Baptist, Muslim, Catholic, etc). Those who argue that things like "In God we trust" are violations of the first amendment are ultimately wrong because such does not favor or restrict any religious establishment.

Those who doubt me need to look to history. The same Congress that first sent the first amendment to the states for ratification saw no problem with having Congressional prayer at the beginning of each meeting of Congress (this is a practice that continues even today). George Washington saw no problem in issuing a general Thanksgiving proclamation that encouraged people to reverence God on Thanksgiving. Religious symbols can be found in many buildings that date back to the Founders times. Finally, the Declaration of Independence states that God is the Giver of man's rights:

"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights,"

The first amendment prohibits a national church and prohibits government from forcing anyone to worship a certain way and prohibits government from not allowing people to believe as they so choose but it does not cause government to have nothing whatsoever to do with religion.
Excellent post, that's one of the best explanations on this subject I've read in a long time.
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  #55 (permalink)  
Old 06-27-2008
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Mick Jagger Mick Jagger is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Excellent post, that's one of the best explanations on this subject I've read in a long time.
It's a flawed explanation in that the author fails to point out that the original Constitution granted the government no power whatsoever over religion.
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I find it appalling that Justice Antonin Scala, in his dissenting opinion in McCreary County v. ACLU, constructed his model of "the relationship between church and state" in America without even considering the actual text of the Constitution. How do incompetents like him get on the U. S. Supreme Court?
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  #56 (permalink)  
Old 06-28-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Mick Jagger
It's a flawed explanation in that the author fails to point out that the original Constitution granted the government no power whatsoever over religion.
What Mick is so ham-handedly referring to (casting ever greater doubt as if any remained on the absurdity of his self-pronounced knowledge of constitutional history and law) is that under the Doctrine of Enumerated Powers (one would have thought someone sooooooo knowledgable as Mick pretends to be would know the term for what he is trying to talk about) the Federal Government has no powers not explicity enumerated to it under the constitution.

This doctrine is absolutely correct, but when applied to the Bill of Rights, and most of the relevant case-law, it ignores several key facts:
1. The Federal Government DOES have plenary police powers traditionally associated with sovereign states over Federal Property and Territories (such as the District of Columbia and other territories)
2. The Doctrine of Enumerated Powers with regard to understanding the Bill of Rights applies ONLY to FEDERAL actions, and 99.99999% of the cases before the court, particularly with regard to the Establishment Clause are based on STATE action, not Federal.

Neither the Establishment Clause, or the Doctrine of Enumerated Powers proscribes the display of the Ten Commandments in front of a state or local courthouse. It doesn't even proscribe it in Federal buildings, as it is not "establishment", and is really nothing more than decorative, it is not a legal exercise of "power" anymore than a decision to put carpeting on the floor and paintings on the wall. But, as said, even if the constitution DID preclude or proscribe the Federal Government from doing so, it says nothing about the states.
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  #57 (permalink)  
Old 06-28-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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...the Establishment Clause...proscribes the display of the Ten Commandments in front of a state or local courthouse.
You're not qualified to ascertain the meaning of the establishment clause, until you can demonstrate knowledge of the law of legal instrument interpretation, at the time the Constitution was made.
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I find it appalling that Justice Antonin Scala, in his dissenting opinion in McCreary County v. ACLU, constructed his model of "the relationship between church and state" in America without even considering the actual text of the Constitution. How do incompetents like him get on the U. S. Supreme Court?
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  #58 (permalink)  
Old 06-28-2008
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post
What Mick is so ham-handedly referring to (casting ever greater doubt as if any remained on the absurdity of his self-pronounced knowledge of constitutional history and law) is that under the Doctrine of Enumerated Powers (one would have thought someone sooooooo knowledgable as Mick pretends to be would know the term for what he is trying to talk about) the Federal Government has no powers not explicity enumerated to it under the constitution.

This doctrine is absolutely correct, but when applied to the Bill of Rights, and most of the relevant case-law, it ignores several key facts:
1. The Federal Government DOES have plenary police powers traditionally associated with sovereign states over Federal Property and Territories (such as the District of Columbia and other territories)
2. The Doctrine of Enumerated Powers with regard to understanding the Bill of Rights applies ONLY to FEDERAL actions, and 99.99999% of the cases before the court, particularly with regard to the Establishment Clause are based on STATE action, not Federal.

Neither the Establishment Clause, or the Doctrine of Enumerated Powers proscribes the display of the Ten Commandments in front of a state or local courthouse. It doesn't even proscribe it in Federal buildings, as it is not "establishment", and is really nothing more than decorative, it is not a legal exercise of "power" anymore than a decision to put carpeting on the floor and paintings on the wall. But, as said, even if the constitution DID preclude or proscribe the Federal Government from doing so, it says nothing about the states.
Then the states are perfectly free to forbid one or another religion within their borders, or establish state churches? cmon, you're not going to say Utah wouldn't have done it by now?

Also, the words of the Declaration are 'endowed by their CREATOR,' They were specifically careful NOT to use the word god. Creator could mean anything, including simply the Universe itself which does indisputably create everything that exists
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  #59 (permalink)  
Old 06-28-2008
Marcus1124 Marcus1124 is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Mick Jagger
You're not qualified to ascertain the meaning of the establishment clause, until you can demonstrate knowledge of the law of legal instrument interpretation, at the time the Constitution was made.
PUT UP OR SHUT UP you unoriginal, substanceless fluff.
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  #60 (permalink)  
Old 06-28-2008
TSGracchus TSGracchus is offline
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Re: First Amendment mandates governmental neutrality between religion and nonreligion

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Originally Posted by Marcus1124 View Post
Neither the Establishment Clause, or the Doctrine of Enumerated Powers proscribes the display of the Ten Commandments in front of a state or local courthouse. It doesn't even proscribe it in Federal buildings, as it is not "establishment", and is really nothing more than decorative
If that were true, then you would be right. It is not true, however. Displaying blue rather than green carpeting implies only an aesthetic preference; displaying the Ten Commandments in a courthouse implies a legal dependence on, or at least reference to, Judeo-Christian doctrine. Although this by itself is not the establishment of religion, it is an action respecting an establishment of religion, by communicating a preference for one religion over others.

Quote:
But, as said, even if the constitution DID preclude or proscribe the Federal Government from doing so, it says nothing about the states.
As originally adopted, it did not. However, since 1868, it has:

Quote:
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws
(14th Amendment.) This language extends the Bill of Rights and other federal limitations on government (except those explicitly limiting the federal government against the states rather than against the people) to the state governments as well.
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